In the ancient near east, especially Persia, could a ruler be stigmatized and face opposition because his mother was a concubine rather than the wife?
Ive read that in Achaemenid Persia, the children of wives were favored above those of concubines in the line of succession. According to answers by historian and independent researcher Trevor Culley, the difference between wives and concubines are that wives had to be Persian, while concubines varied in rank, and those of higher rank were often elite non-persians.
My motivation for this question is because Ive got an idea for a fantasy story which takes place in a world based on ancient Persia. My idea is that the MC, a queen consort, was abused by her husband out of envy because he had been the son of a concubine and not his father's first pick for heir, while both her parents are royalty.
Im not dedicated to making my story completely historically accurate, but when I asked someone who seems to know their stuff about ancient history that my framing is "too modern", that its anachronistic for the ancient near east for a man to be ashamed that his mother was a concubine, because concubines were perfectly legal sexual partners, their children belong to their father's house to whatever they can inherit from him.
They said: "Concubines and primary wives existed for different reasons, one is not "worse" than the other."
My question is more or less a writing question, but I hope its acceptable to ask.
Ive considered that maybe "being ashamed that his mother was a concubine" is a wrong way to frame it. The shame shouldnt really stem from his mother's status, but because ancient Persian rulers needed to demonstrably have royal blood, and if his mother had been the concubine of someone else before his father, that would make his paternity questionable and his claim to the throne more shaky.